Practice Final Exam

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Which two commands could be used to check if DNS name resolution is working properly on a Windows PC? (Choose two.)

Correct: The ping command tests the connection between two hosts. When ping uses a host domain name to test the connection, the resolver on the PC will first perform the name resolution to query the DNS server for the IP address of the host. If the ping command is unable to resolve the domain name to an IP address, an error will result.

Nslookup is a tool for testing and troubleshooting DNS servers.

What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC? 

Correct: The ping destination command can be used to test connectivity.

Refer to the exhibit. What does the value of the window size specify?

Correct: The window size specifies the amount of data that can be sent before an acknowledgment is received from the receiver. This value specifies the highest number of bytes, not the required number of bytes.

A Wireshark capture is shown with the Transmission Control Protocol section expanded. The item highlighted states Window size: 9017.

Correct: 127.0.0.1 is an address reserved by TCP/IP to test the NIC, drivers and TCP/IP implementation of the device.

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum possible throughput between the PC and the server?

Correct: The maximum throughput between any two nodes on a network is determined by the slowest link between those nodes.

If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications?

Correct: A default gateway is only required to communicate with devices on another network. The absence of a default gateway does not affect connectivity between devices on the same local network.

The employees and residents of Ciscoville cannot access the Internet or any remote web-based services. IT workers quickly determine that the city firewall is being flooded with so much traffic that a breakdown of connectivity to the Internet is occurring. Which type of attack is being launched at Ciscoville?

Correct: A DoS (denial of service) attack prevents authorized users from using one or more computing resources.

A small advertising company has a web server that provides critical business service. The company connects to the Internet through a leased line service to an ISP. Which approach best provides cost effective redundancy for the Internet connection?

Correct: With a separate DSL connection to another ISP, the company will have a redundancy solution for the Internet connection, in case the leased line connection fails. The other options provide other aspects of redundancy, but not the Internet connection. The options of adding a second NIC and adding multiple connections between the switches and the edge router will provide redundancy in case one NIC fails or one connection between the switches and the edge router fails. The option of adding another web server provides redundancy if the main web server fails.

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

Correct: In order to enter global configuration mode, the command configure terminal, or a shortened version such as config t, must be entered from privileged EXEC mode. In this scenario the administrator is in user EXEC mode, as indicated by the > symbol after the hostname. The administrator would need to use the enable command to move into privileged EXEC mode before entering the configure terminal command.

Why is NAT not needed in IPv6?​

Correct: The large number of public IPv6 addresses eliminates the need for NAT. Sites from the largest enterprises to single households can get public IPv6 network addresses. This avoids some of the NAT-induced application problems that are experienced by applications that require end-to-end connectivity.

Which two OSI model layers have the same functionality as two layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)

Correct: The OSI transport layer is functionally equivalent to the TCP/IP transport layer, and the OSI network layer is equivalent to the TCP/IP internet layer. The OSI data link and physical layers together are equivalent to the TCP/IP network access layer. The OSI session layer (with the presentation layer) is included within the TCP/IP application layer.

Which two ICMP messages are used by both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols? (Choose two.)​

Correct: The ICMP messages common to both ICMPv4 and ICMPv6 include: host confirmation, destination (net, host, protocol, port) or service unreachable, time exceeded, and route redirection. Router solicitation, neighbor solicitation, and router advertisement are new protocols implemented in ICMPv6.

What does the IP address 192.168.1.15/29 represent?

Correct: A broadcast address is the last address of any given network. This address cannot be assigned to a host, and it is used to communicate with all hosts on that network.

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC3. In this scenario, what will happen next?

Correct: When a network device has to communicate with a device on another network, it broadcasts an ARP request asking for the default gateway MAC address. The default gateway (RT1) unicasts an ARP reply with the Fa0/0 MAC address.

Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.)

Correct: Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used for high-traffic backbone cabling and does not conduct electricity. Multimode fiber uses LEDs for signaling and single-mode fiber uses laser technology. FIber-optic cabling carries signals from only one device to another.

Although CSMA/CD is still a feature of Ethernet, why is it no longer necessary?

Correct: The use of Layer 2 switches operating in full-duplex mode eliminates collisions, thereby eliminating the need for CSMA/CD.

What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?

Correct: The purpose of the CRC value in the FCS field is to determine if the frame has errors. If the frame does have errors, then the frame is dropped by the switch.

Which two acronyms represent the data link sublayers that Ethernet relies upon to operate? (Choose two.)

Correct: For Layer 2 functions, Ethernet relies on logical link control (LLC) and MAC sublayers to operate at the data link layer. FCS (Frame Check Sequence) and SFD (Start Frame Delimiter) are fields of the Ethernet frame. CSMA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access) is the technology Ethernet uses to manage shared media access.

A network administrator is issuing the login block-for 180 attempts 2 within 30 command on a router. Which threat is the network administrator trying to prevent?

Correct: The login block-for 180 attempts 2 within 30 command will cause the device to block authentication after 2 unsuccessful attempts within 30 seconds for a duration of 180 seconds. A device inspecting the traffic on a link has nothing to do with the router. The router configuration cannot prevent unauthorized access to the equipment room. A worm would not attempt to access the router to propagate to another part of the network.

Which two issues can cause both runts and giants in Ethernet networks? (Choose two.)

Correct: Because collisions are a normal aspect of half-duplex communications, runt and giant frames are common by-products of those operations. A malfunctioning NIC can also place frames on the network that are either too short or longer than the maximum allowed length. CRC errors can result from using the wrong type of cable or from electrical interference. Using a cable that is too long can result in late collisions rather than runts and giants.

Which statement describes the characteristics of packet-filtering and stateful firewalls as they relate to the OSI model?

Correct: Packet filtering firewalls can always filter Layer 3 content and sometimes TCP and UDP-based content. Stateful firewalls monitor connections and thus have to be able to support up to the session layer of the OSI model.

What is a characteristic of a switch virtual interface (SVI)?​

Correct: Cisco IOS switches have physical ports for devices to connect to, but also have one or more switch virtual interfaces (SVIs). These are virtual interfaces, because there is no physical hardware on the device associated with them, rather they are created in software. The virtual interface provides a means to remotely manage a switch over a network that is using IP. Each switch comes with one SVI appearing in the default configuration "out-of-the-box." The default SVI is interface VLAN1. The no shutdown command needs to be issued to activate this interface.

Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?

Correct: The purpose of an ARP request is to find the MAC address of the destination host on an Ethernet LAN. The ARP process sends a Layer 2 broadcast to all devices on the Ethernet LAN. The frame contains the IP address of the destination and the broadcast MAC address, FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. The host with the IP address that matches the IP address in the ARP request will reply with a unicast frame that includes the MAC address of the host. Thus the original sending host will obtain the destination IP and MAC address pair to continue the encapsulation process for data transmission.

Refer to the exhibit. A user issues the command netstat –r on a workstation. Which IPv6 address is one of the link-local addresses of the workstation?

Correct: In the IPv6 address scheme, the network of fe80::/10 is reserved for link-local addresses. The address fe80::/64 is a network address that indicates, in this workstation, fe80::/64 is actually used for link-local addresses. Thus the address fe80::30d0:115:3f57:fe4c/128 is a valid IPv6 link-local address.

Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?

Correct: At the transport layer, a host computer will de-encapsulate a segment to reassemble data to an acceptable format by the application layer protocol of the TCP/IP model.

What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network?

Correct: Routing table entries for remote routes will have a next hop IP address. The next hop IP address is the address of the router interface of the next device to be used to reach the destination network. Directly-connected and local routes have no next hop, because they do not require going through another router to be reached.

Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

Correct: The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and network access. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The top three layers of the OSI model: application, presentation, and session map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model.

Two students are working on a network design project. One student is doing the drawing, while the other student is writing the proposal. The drawing is finished and the student wants to share the folder that contains the drawing so that the other student can access the file and copy it to a USB drive. Which networking model is being used? 

Correct: In a peer-to-peer (P2P) networking model, data is exchanged between two network devices without the use of a dedicated server. ​​

Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows a small switched network and the contents of the MAC address table of the switch. PC1 has sent a frame addressed to PC3. What will the switch do with the frame?

Correct: The MAC address of PC3 is not present in the MAC table of the switch. Because the switch does not know where to send the frame that is addressed to PC3, it will forward the frame to all the switch ports, except for port 4, which is the incoming port.

Which command is used to manually query a DNS server to resolve a specific host name?

Correct: The nslookup command was created to allow a user to manually query a DNS server to resolve a given host name. The ipconfig /displaydns command only displays previously resolved DNS entries. The tracert command was created to examine the path that packets take as they cross a network and can resolve a hostname by automatically querying a DNS server. The net command is used to manage network computers, servers, printers, and network drives.

A network team is comparing topologies for connecting on a shared media. Which physical topology is an example of a hybrid topology for a LAN?

Correct: An extended star topology is an example of a hybrid topology as additional switches are interconnected with other star topologies. A partial mesh topology is a common hybrid WAN topology. The bus and ring are not hybrid topology types.

What are two ways to protect a computer from malware? (Choose two.)

Correct: At a minimum, a computer should use antivirus software and have all software up to date to defend against malware.

What does a router do when it receives a Layer 2 frame over the network medium?

Correct: Routers are responsible for encapsulating a frame with the proper format for the physical network media they connect. At each hop along the path, a router does the following:

1. Accepts a frame from a medium
2. De-encapsulates the frame
3. Determines the best path to forward the packet
4. Re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame
5. Forwards the new frame appropriate to the medium of that segment of the physical network

A router boots and enters setup mode. What is the reason for this?

Correct: If a router cannot locate the startup-config file in NVRAM, it will enter setup mode to allow the configuration to be entered from the console device.

Two network engineers are discussing the methods used to forward frames through a switch. What is an important concept related to the cut-through method of switching?

Correct: Fast-forward switching offers the lowest level of latency and it is the typical cut-through method of switching. Fragment-free switching can be viewed as a compromise between store-and-forward switching and fast-forward switching. Because fast-forward switching starts forwarding before the entire packet has been received, there may be times when packets are relayed with errors.

What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of the transfer of bits across a medium over a given period of time?

Correct: Correct

Which term describes a field in the IPv4 packet header that contains a unicast, multicast, or broadcast address?

Correct: Correct

Floor(config)# interface gi0/1
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Registrar LAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.235.234 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface gi0/0
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Manager LAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 192.168.234.114 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/0
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the ISP
Floor(config-if)# ip address 10.234.235.254 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# interface s0/0/1
Floor(config-if)# description Connects to the Head Office WAN
Floor(config-if)# ip address 203.0.113.3 255.255.255.0
Floor(config-if)# no shutdown
Floor(config-if)# end

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is connecting a new host to the Registrar LAN. The host needs to communicate with remote networks. What IP address would be configured as the default gateway on the new host?

Correct: Correct

Which is the compressed format of the IPv6 address fe80:0000:0000:0000:0220:0b3f:f0e0:0029?

Correct: Correct

Only employees connected to IPv6 interfaces are having difficulty connecting to remote networks. The analyst wants to verify that IPv6 routing has been enabled. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task?

Correct: Correct

Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

Correct: Correct

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 22. What service is the client requesting?

Correct: Correct

What service is provided by POP3?

Correct: Correct

What characteristic describes spyware?

Correct: Correct

Which statement describes network security?

Correct: Correct

Which two devices would be described as intermediary devices? (Choose two.)

Correct: Correct

What type of address is 198.133.219.162?

Correct: Correct

Given network 172.18.109.0, which subnet mask would be used if 6 host bits were available?

Correct: With an IPv4 network, the subnet mask is determined by the hosts bits that are required:
11 host bits required - 255.255.248.0
10 host bits required - 255.255.252.0
9 host bits required - 255.255.254.0
8 host bits required - 255.255.255.0
7 host bits required - 255.255.255.128
6 host bits required - 255.255.255.192
5 host bits required - 255.255.255.224
4 host bits required - 255.255.255.240
3 host bits required - 255.255.255.248
2 host bits required - 255.255.255.252

What type of IPv6 address is represented by ::1/128?

Correct: Correct

Network information:
  * local router LAN interface: 172.19.29.254 / fe80:65ab:dcc1::10
  * local router WAN interface: 198.133.219.33 / 2001:db8:FACE:39::10
  * remote server: 192.135.250.103

What task might a user be trying to accomplish by using the ping 2001:db8:FACE:39::10 command?

Correct: Correct

To which TCP port group does the port 414 belong?

Correct: There are different types of TCP and UDP port numbers:

• Well-known ports - numbers 0 to 1023
• Registered ports - numbers 1024 to 49151
• Dynamic or private ports - numbers 49152 to 65535