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Course Final Exam

Course Final Exam

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CCNA: Introduction to Networks Course Final Exam

Cisco Networking Academy content is copyrighted and the unauthorized posting, distribution or sharing of this exam content is prohibited.

This final exam will cover material from the CCNA1 - Introduction to Networks v7.0 (ITN) curriculum.

This exam will be scored using the Weighted Model where each MCSA (Multiple-Choice Single-Answer) is worth two points and each MCMA (Multiple-Choice Multiple-Answer) is worth one point for each correct option. If more options are selected than required, the student will receive a score of zero.

© 2023, Cisco Systems, Inc.

Question

The graphic contains two subnets. The subnet Teachers contains two hosts connected through a switch: host A with MAC address 00-00-0c-94-36-aa and IP address 172.16.10.100/24, and host B with MAC address 00-00-0c-94-36-bb and IP address 172.16.10.200/24. The switch is connected to the router through the Fast Ethernet 0 interface. This interface has a MAC address 00-00-0c-94-36-ab and an IP address 172.16.10.99/24. The other interface of the router, Fast Ethernet 1 has a MAC address 00-00-0c-94-36-cd and IP address 172.16.20.99/24. This interface is part of subnet Students and it is connected to another switch. Two other hosts are connected to this switch: host C with MAC address 00-00-0c-94-36-cc and IP address 172.16.20.100/24, and host D with MAC address 00-00-0c-94-36-dd and IP address 172.16.20.200/24.

Refer to the exhibit. Host B on subnet Teachers transmits a packet to host D on subnet Students. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses are contained in the PDUs that are transmitted from host B to the router?

Correct: When host B in subnet Teachers sends a packet to a host D in subnet Students, the packet is going to have the following Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses:
- MAC destination address: 00-00-0c-94-36-ab (MAC address of the gateway)
- MAC source address: 00-00-0c-94-36-bb (MAC address of host B)
- IP destination address: 172.16.20.200/24 (IP address of host D)
- IP source address: 172.16.10.200/24 (IP address of host B)

Question

Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?

Correct: QoS mechanisms enable the establishment of queue management strategies that enforce priorities for different categories of application data. Thus, this queuing enables voice data to have priority over transaction data, which has priority over web data.

Question

What are proprietary protocols?

Correct: Proprietary protocols have their definition and operation controlled by one company or vendor. Some of them can be used by different organizations with permission from the owner. The TCP/IP protocol suite is an open standard, not a proprietary protocol.

Question

What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

Correct: When a host needs to send a message to another host located on the same network, it can forward the message directly. However, when a host needs to send a message to a remote network, it must use the router, also known as the default gateway. This is because the data link frame address of the remote destination host cannot be used directly. Instead, the IP packet has to be sent to the router (default gateway) and the router will forward the packet toward its destination. Therefore, if the default gateway is incorrectly configured, the host can communicate with other hosts on the same network, but not with hosts on remote networks.

Question

Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?

Correct: The source and destination port numbers are used to identify the correct application and window within that application.

Question

Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header field, is decremented by each router that receives a packet?

Correct: When a router receives a packet, the router will decrement the Time-to-Live (TTL) field by one. When the field reaches zero, the receiving router will discard the packet and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded message to the sender.

Question

Which two statements describe features of an IPv4 routing table on a router? (Choose two.)​

Correct: The show ip route is the command used to display the routing table of the router. In IPv4, directly connected interfaces will have one source code: C. The routing table stores information about directly connected routes and remote routes. When there are two or more possible routes to the same destination, the route associated with the lower metric is included in the routing table. An entry in the routing table with a source code of S is included if a default static route is configured on the router.

Question

What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the OSI model?

Correct: The data link layer describes media access and physical addressing. The encoding of a MAC address on a NIC places it at that layer. Ports and cables are placed at the physical layer of the OSI model. IP addresses are placed at the network layer. The TCP/IP protocol stack describes a different model.

Question

A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

Correct: To be truly private a technician would use a Console connection however if remote management is required SSH provides a secure method.

Question

Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)

Correct: Network Address Translation (NAT) is a technology that is implemented within IPv4 networks. One application of NAT is to use private IP addresses inside a network and use NAT to share a few public IP addresses for many internal hosts. In this way it provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion. However, since NAT hides the actual IP addresses that are used by end devices, it may cause problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.

Question

What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?

Correct: To help prevent the effects of crosstalk, UTP cable wires are twisted together into pairs. Twisting the wires together causes the magnetic fields of each wire to cancel each other out.

Question

What are two problems that can be caused by a large number of ARP request and reply messages? (Choose two.)

Correct: ARP requests are sent as broadcasts:
(1) All nodes will receive them, and they will be processed by software, interrupting the CPU.
(2) The switch forwards (floods) Layer 2 broadcasts to all ports.

A switch does not change its MAC table based on ARP request or reply messages. The switch populates the MAC table using the source MAC address of all frames. The ARP payload is very small and does not overload the switch.

Question

Match the characteristic to the category.

Correct:

Options matched to the correct selection.

IP addressMAC address
Contained in the Layer 3 headerContained in the Layer 2 header
Separated into a network portion and a unique identifierSeparated into OUI and a unique identifier
32 or 128 bits48 bits

Partly correct:

Options matched to the correct selection.

IP addressMAC address
Contained in the Layer 3 headerContained in the Layer 2 header
Separated into a network portion and a unique identifierSeparated into OUI and a unique identifier
32 or 128 bits48 bits

Incorrect:

Options matched to the correct selection.

IP addressMAC address
Contained in the Layer 3 headerContained in the Layer 2 header
Separated into a network portion and a unique identifierSeparated into OUI and a unique identifier
32 or 128 bits48 bits

Question

Match the header field with the appropriate layer of the OSI model.

Correct:

Options matched to the correct selection.

Layer 2Layer 3Layer 4
FCS (frame check sequence)source IP addressdestination port number
802.2 headerTTLAcknowledgement number
destination MAC address

Partly correct:

Options matched to the correct selection.

Layer 2Layer 3Layer 4
FCS (frame check sequence)source IP addressdestination port number
802.2 headerTTLAcknowledgement number
destination MAC address

Incorrect:

Options matched to the correct selection.

Layer 2Layer 3Layer 4
FCS (frame check sequence)source IP addressdestination port number
802.2 headerTTLAcknowledgement number
destination MAC address

Question

A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?

Correct: When sending a packet to a remote destination, a host will need to send the packet to a gateway on the local subnet. Because the gateway will be the Layer 2 destination for the frame on this LAN segment, the destination MAC address must be the address of the gateway. If the host does not already have this address in its ARP cache, it must send an ARP request for the address of the gateway.

Question

What are two ICMPv6 messages that are not present in ICMP for IPv4? (Choose two.)

Correct: ICMPv6 includes four new message types: Router Advertisement, Neighbor Advertisement, Router Solicitation, and Neighbor Solicitation.

Question

What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

Correct: The general format for IPv6 global unicast addresses includes a global routing prefix, a subnet ID, and an interface ID. The global routing prefix is the network portion of the address. A typical global routing prefix is /48 assigned by the Internet provider. The subnet ID portion can be used by an organization to create multiple subnetwork numbers. The interface ID is similar to the host portion of an IPv4 address.

Question

Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?

Correct: For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for host addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the network and broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore, the range of host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.

Question

A central router is directly connected to four other routers.  Each of those routers is connected to a cloud of computers.  The clouds are labeled "75 Hosts", "100 Hosts", "25 Hosts", and "50 Hosts".

Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?

Correct: The largest subnet in the topology has 100 hosts in it so the subnet mask must have at least 7 host bits in it (27-2=126). 255.255.255.0 has 8 hosts bits, but this does not meet the requirement of providing the maximum number of subnets.

Question

How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?

Correct: The service password-encryption command encrypts plaintext passwords in the configuration file so that they cannot be viewed by unauthorized users.

Question

A disgruntled employee is using some free wireless networking tools to determine information about the enterprise wireless networks. This person is planning on using this information to hack the wireless network. What type of attack is this?

Correct: A reconnaissance attack is the unauthorized discovery and documentation of various computing networks, network systems, resources, applications, services, or vulnerabilities.

Question

A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?

Correct: After a user is successfully authenticated (logged into the server), the authorization is the process of determining what network resources the user can access and what operations (such as read or edit) the user can perform.

Question

Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

Correct: A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not need an IP address to transmit frames to attached devices. However, when a switch is accessed remotely through the network, it must have a Layer 3 address. The IP address must be applied to a virtual interface rather than to a physical interface. Routers, not switches, function as default gateways.

Question

A CLI output that says the following:  Switch1> config t             ^ % Invalid input detected at '^' marker.  The ^ is under the "f" in the word "config"

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?

Correct: In order to enter global configuration mode, the command configure terminal, or a shortened version such as config t, must be entered from privileged EXEC mode. In this scenario the administrator is in user EXEC mode, as indicated by the > symbol after the hostname. The administrator would need to use the enable command to move into privileged EXEC mode before entering the configure terminal command.

Question

What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer?

Correct: On a Windows PC, the ipconfig command can be used to verify the current IP configuration. The ping command can be used to verify connectivity to other network devices. The show interfaces and show ip interface brief commands are both Cisco IOS commands that are used to see the status of router and switch interfaces.

Question

What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?

Correct: A monopoly by one company is not a good idea from a user point of view. If a protocol can only be run on one brand, it makes it difficult to have mixed equipment in a network. A proprietary protocol is not free to use. An open standard protocol will in general be implemented by a wide range of vendors.

Question

What are two functions that are provided by the network layer? (Choose two.)

Correct: The network layer is primarily concerned with passing data from a source to a destination on another network. IP addresses supply unique identifiers for the source and destination. The network layer provides connectionless, best-effort delivery. Devices rely on higher layers to supply services to processes.

Question

Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)

Correct: On a Windows host, the route print or netstat -r commands can be used to display the host routing table. Both commands generate the same output. On a router, the show ip route command is used to display the routing table. The netstat –s command is used to display per-protocol statistics. The tracert command is used to display the path that a packet travels to its destination.

Question

During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry?

Correct: A router receives a packet on an interface and looks at the destination IP address. It consults its routing table and matches the destination IP address to a routing table entry. The router then discovers that it has to send the packet to the next-hop address or out to a directly connected interface. When the destination address is on a directly connected interface, the packet is switched over to that interface.

Question

Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)

Correct: The IPv6 packet header fields are as follows: Version, Traffic Class, Flow Label, Payload Length, Next Header, Hop Limit, Source Address, and Destination Address. The IPv4 packet header fields include the following: Version, Differentiated Services, Time-to-Live, Protocol, Source IP Address, and Destination IP Address. Both versions have a 4-bit Version field. Both versions have a Source (IP) Address field. IPv4 addresses are 32 bits; IPv6 addresses are 128 bits. The Time-to-Live or TTL field in IPv4 is now called Hop Limit in IPv6, but this field serves the same purpose in both versions. The value in this 8-bit field decrements each time a packet passes through any router. When this value is 0, the packet is discarded and is not forwarded to any other router.

Question

Two pings were issued from a host on a local network. The first ping was issued to the IP address of the default gateway of the host and it failed. The second ping was issued to the IP address of a host outside the local network and it was successful. What is a possible cause for the failed ping?

Correct: If the ping from one host to another host on a remote network is successful, this indicates that the default gateway is operational. In this scenario, if a ping from one host to the default gateway failed, it is possible that some security features are applied to the router interface, preventing it from responding to ping requests.

Question

Match a statement to the related network model.

Correct:

Options matched to the correct selection.

peer-to-peer networkpeer-to-peer application
no dedicated server is requiredrequires a specific user interface
client and server roles are set on a per request basisa background service is required

Partly correct:

Options matched to the correct selection.

peer-to-peer networkpeer-to-peer application
no dedicated server is requiredrequires a specific user interface
client and server roles are set on a per request basisa background service is required

Incorrect:

Options matched to the correct selection.

peer-to-peer networkpeer-to-peer application
no dedicated server is requiredrequires a specific user interface
client and server roles are set on a per request basisa background service is required

Question

What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)

Correct: The command show ip interface brief shows the IP address of each interface, as well as the operational status of the interfaces at both Layer 1 and Layer 2. In order to see interface descriptions and speed and duplex settings, use the command show running-config interface. Next-hop addresses are displayed in the routing table with the command show ip route, and the MAC address of an interface can be seen with the command show interfaces.

Question

The exhibit shows a network topology. PC1 and PC2 are connected to the Fa0/1 and Fa0/2 ports of the SW1 switch, respectively. SW1 is connected through its Fa0/3 port to the Fa0/0 interface of the RT1 router. RT1 is connected through its Fa0/1 to the Fa0/2 port of SW2 switch. SW2 is connected through its Fa0/1 port to the PC3.

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?​

Correct: When a network device wants to communicate with another device on the same network, it sends a broadcast ARP request. In this case, the request will contain the IP address of PC2. The destination device (PC2) sends an ARP reply with its MAC address.

Question

Match the characteristic to the forwarding method.

Correct:

Options matched to the correct selection.

cut-throughstore-and-forward
low latencyalways stores the entire frame
may forward runt frameschecks the CRC before forwarding
begins forwarding when the destination address is receivedchecks the frame length before forwarding

Partly correct:

Options matched to the correct selection.

cut-throughstore-and-forward
low latencyalways stores the entire frame
may forward runt frameschecks the CRC before forwarding
begins forwarding when the destination address is receivedchecks the frame length before forwarding

Incorrect:

Options matched to the correct selection.

cut-throughstore-and-forward
low latencyalways stores the entire frame
may forward runt frameschecks the CRC before forwarding
begins forwarding when the destination address is receivedchecks the frame length before forwarding

Question

A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)

Correct: EMI and RFI signals can distort and corrupt data signals that are carried by copper media. These distortions usually come from radio waves and electromagnetic devices such as motors and florescent lights. Crosstalk is a disturbance that is caused by adjacent wires bundled too close together with the magnetic field of one wire affecting another. Signal attenuation is caused when an electrical signal begins to deteriorate over the length of a copper cable.

Question

A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)

Correct: The three areas of concern for wireless networks focus on the size of the coverage area, any nearby interference, and providing network security. Extensive cabling is not a concern for wireless networks, as a wireless network will require minimal cabling for providing wireless access to hosts. Mobility options are not a component of the areas of concern for wireless networks.

Question

What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

Correct: Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) is used with wireless networking technology to mediate media contention. Carrier sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD) is used with wired Ethernet technology to mediate media contention. Priority ordering and token passing are not used (or not a method) for media access control.

Question

Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved? (Choose two.)

Correct: Destination and source MAC addresses change at every router hop if the entire path is Ethernet based. The destination IP address remains unchanged along the path unless Network Address Translation is active.

Question

What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)

Correct: When a node encapsulates a data packet into a frame, it needs the destination MAC address. First it determines if the destination device is on the local network or on a remote network. Then it checks the ARP table (not the MAC table) to see if a pair of IP address and MAC address exists for either the destination IP address (if the destination host is on the local network) or the default gateway IP address (if the destination host is on a remote network). If the match does not exist, it generates an ARP broadcast to seek the IP address to MAC address resolution. Because the destination MAC address is unknown, the ARP request is broadcast with the MAC address FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. Either the destination device or the default gateway will respond with its MAC address, which enables the sending node to assemble the frame. If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will discard the packet because a frame cannot be created.

Question

A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?

Correct: Stateless DHCPv6 or stateful DHCPv6 uses a DHCP server, but Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) does not. A SLAAC client can automatically generate an address that is based on information from local routers via Router Advertisement (RA) messages. Once an address has been assigned to an interface via SLAAC, the client must ensure via Duplicate Address Detection (DAD) that the address is not already in use. It does this by sending out an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message and listening for a response. If a response is received, then it means that another device is already using this address.

Question

Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

Correct: The FCS check is used with store-and-forward switching to drop any frame with a FCS that does not match the FCS calculation that is made by a switch. Cut-through switching does not perform any error checking. Borderless switching is a network architecture, not a switching method. Ingress port buffering is used with store-and-forward switching to support different Ethernet speeds, but it is not a switching method.

Question

An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of 2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created without using bits in the interface ID space?

Correct: Subnetting a /56 prefix to a /64 prefix involves increasing the network prefix by 8 bits. 8 bits will create 256 subnets. The last 64 bits of the address is reserved for the interface ID.

Question

A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)

Correct: The ipconfig and nslookup commands will provide initial IP address and DNS configuration information to the technicians and determine if DHCP is assigning correct information to the PCs. The ping utility would be used to verify, or not, connectivity to the default gateway (router) using the configured default gateway address, or using the known correct default gateway address if these are found to be different. The arp -a or netsh interface ipv6 show neighbor commands could be used if the problem is then suspected to be an IP address to MAC address mapping issue. The telnet and tracert utilities could be used to determine where the problem was located in the network if the default gateway configuration was found to be correct.

Question

Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?

Correct: The network engineers should first establish that the reported performance of the network is in fact abnormal. This is done by referring to the documented network performance baseline.Once it has been verified that the network is not having a proper performance, then specific troubleshooting processes can be applied.

Question

Which type of security threat would be responsible if a spreadsheet add-on disables the local software firewall?

Correct: A Trojan horse is software that does something harmful, but is hidden in legitimate software code. A denial of service (DoS) attack results in interruption of network services to users, network devices, or applications. A brute-force attack commonly involves trying to access a network device. A buffer overflow occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a memory location than it can hold.

Question

A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?

Correct: While at the privileged mode prompt such as Router#, type exit,press Enter, and the banner message appears. Power cycling a network device that has had the banner motd command issued will also display the banner message, but this is not a quick way to test the configuration.

Question

Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols.

Correct:

Options matched to the correct selection.

TCPUDP
FTPDHCP
HTTPTFTP SMTP

Partly correct:

Options matched to the correct selection.

TCPUDP
FTPDHCP
HTTPTFTP SMTP

Incorrect:

Options matched to the correct selection.

TCPUDP
FTPDHCP
HTTPTFTP SMTP

Question

An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.)

Correct: There are four steps to configure SSH support on a Cisco router:
Step 1: Set the domain name.
Step 2: Generate one-way secret keys.
Step 3: Create a local username and password.
Step 4: Enable SSH inbound on a vty line.

Question

Which information does the show startup-config command display?

Correct: The show startup-config command displays the saved configuration located in NVRAM. The show running-config command displays the contents of the currently running configuration file located in RAM.

Question

A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a remote network. During encapsulation for this request, what information is added to the address field of a frame to indicate the destination?

Correct: A frame is encapsulated with source and destination MAC addresses. The source device will not know the MAC address of the remote host. An ARP request will be sent by the source and will be responded to by the router. The router will respond with the MAC address of its interface, the one which is connected to the same network as the source.

Question

What two ICMPv6 message types must be permitted through IPv6 access control lists to allow resolution of Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 MAC addresses? (Choose two.)

Correct: In order for IPv6 to function on an IPv6 enabled interface, neighbor discovery must be operational. This means that if an IPv6 access control list is applied to an IPv6 interface, the access control list must permit the neighbor solicitation and neighbor advertisement messages. The messages are used by the interface to resolve Layer 2 MAC addresses.

Question

What is the consequence of configuring a router with the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command?

Correct: When the router is configured using the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command, the router begins sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages out IPv6 enabled interfaces. The ipv6 address ipv6-address/prefix-length command needs to be issued to create a global unicast IPv6 address. A router interface can generate its own IPv6 link-local address without having a global unicast address by using the ipv6 enable interface configuration command. The interfaces must be activated using the no shutdown command.

Question

What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a received IPv4 packet from traveling endlessly on a network?

Correct: To prevent an IPv4 packet to travel in the network endlessly, TCP/IP protocols use ICMPv4 protocol to provide feedback about issues. When a router receives a packet and decrements the TTL field in the IPv4 packet by 1 and if the result is zero, it discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the source host.

Question

What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?

Correct: The data link layer receives packets from and directs packets to an upper layer protocol. As a consequence, the upper layer protocol does not have to worry about the media that the communication will use. The physical layer is responsible for generating the electrical, optical, or electromagnetic signals that will represent 1 and 0 on the media. Converting the stream of data bits into a predefined code is also a function of this layer. Deciding the path by which a packet will be forwarded to a remote network is a function of the network layer.

Question

Match each item to the type of topology diagram on which it is typically identified.

Correct:

Options matched to the correct selection.

physical topology diagramlogical topology diagram
location of a desktop PC in a classroomIP address of a server
path of cables that connect rooms to wiring closets

Partly correct:

Options matched to the correct selection.

physical topology diagramlogical topology diagram
location of a desktop PC in a classroomIP address of a server
path of cables that connect rooms to wiring closets

Incorrect:

Options matched to the correct selection.

physical topology diagramlogical topology diagram
location of a desktop PC in a classroomIP address of a server
path of cables that connect rooms to wiring closets

Question

Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?​

Correct: Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10. The original IPv6 specification defined site-local addresses and used the prefix range FEC0::/10, but these addresses were deprecated by the IETF in favor of unique local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique local address because it is in the range of FC00::/7 to FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix FF00::/8.

Question

The exhibit shows PC1 assigned an address of 192.168.10.8/24 attached to a switch that is attached to the G0/0 port of R1. R1 has a serial connection to R2 through port S0/0/0 on both routers. Port G0/0 on router R2 connects to a switch that connects to a PC labeled PC2 with the IP address of 192.168.11.5/24.

Refer to the exhibit. If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2 and routing has been configured between the two routers, what will R1 do with the Ethernet frame header attached by PC1?

Correct: When PC1 forms the various headers attached to the data one of those headers is the Layer 2 header. Because PC1 connects to an Ethernet network, an Ethernet header is used. The source MAC address will be the MAC address of PC1 and the destination MAC address will be that of G0/0 on R1. When R1 gets that information, the router removes the Layer 2 header and creates a new one for the type of network the data will be placed onto (the serial link).

Question

The graphic contains the following information: <output omitted>   Interface: 192.168.1.67 --- 0xa  Internet Address        Physical Address      Type 192.168.1.254           64-0f-29-0d-36-91     dynamic 192.168.1.255           ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff            static 224.0.0.22                 01-00-5e-00-00-16    static   224.0.0.251               01-00-5e-00-00-fb     static 224.0.0.252               01-00-5e-00-00-fc     static 255.255.255.255        ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff     static Interface: 10.82.253.91 --- 0x10  Internet Address        Physical Address      Type 10.82.253.92             64-0f-29-0d-36-91     dynamic 224.0.0.22                 01-00-5e-00-00-16     static   224.0.0.251               01-00-5e-00-00-fb     static 224.0.0.252               01-00-5e-00-00-fc     static 255.255.255.255       ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff            static​

Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol was responsible for building the table that is shown?

Correct: The table that is shown corresponds to the output of the arp -a command, which is used on a Windows 7 PC to display the ARP table.

Question

An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?​

Correct: FF02::2 identifies all IPv6 routers that exist on the link or network. FF02::1 is the target for all IPv6 enabled devices on the link or network.​

Question

A network technician is researching the use of fiber optic cabling in a new technology center. Which two issues should be considered before implementing fiber optic media? (Choose two.)

Correct: Fiber optic media is more expensive than copper cabling used over the same distance. Fiber optic cables use light instead of an electrical signal, so EMI and RFI are not issues. However, fiber optic does require different skills to terminate and splice.

Question

What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)

Correct: Both TCP and UDP use source and destination port numbers to distinguish different data streams and to forward the right data segments to the right applications. Error checking the header and data is done by both protocols by using a checksum calculation to determine the integrity of the data that is received. TCP is connection-oriented and uses a 3-way handshake to establish an initial connection. TCP also uses window to regulate the amount of traffic sent before receiving an acknowledgment. UDP is connectionless and is the best protocol for carry digitized VoIP signals.

Question

What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)

Correct: The Internet Protocol (IP) is a connectionless, best effort protocol. This means that IP requires no end-to-end connection nor does it guarantee delivery of packets. IP is also media independent, which means it operates independently of the network media carrying the packets.

Question

What two security solutions are most likely to be used only in a corporate environment? (Choose two.)

Correct: Corporate networks are complex, provide access to many users, and house large amounts of sensitive information. For this reason, corporate networks require more sophisticated security measures than home networks. Corporations usually require security solutions that include dedicated firewall systems, access control lists, intrusion prevention systems, and virtual private networks.

Question

The exhibit show the output from the show ip interface brief command executed on a switch. The output is as follows: Switch#  show ip interface brief Interface          IP-Address       OK?   Method   Status    Protocol FastEthernet0/1     unassigned      YES     manual      up          up FastEthernet0/2     unassigned      YES     manual     down   down FastEthernet0/3     unassigned      YES     manual     down   down FastEthernet0/5     unassigned      YES     manual     down   down FastEthernet0/6     unassigned      YES     manual     down   down (output omitted) FastEthernet0/23  unassigned       YES     manual     down   down FastEthernet0/24  unassigned       YES     manual     down   down Vlan1                      192.168.11.3     YES    manual     up         up

Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

Correct: Vlan1 is the default SVI. Because an SVI has been configured, the switch can be configured and managed remotely. FastEthernet0/0 is showing up and up, so a device is connected.

Question

What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?

Correct: Cloud computing extends IT's capabilities without requiring investment in new infrastructure, training new personnel, or licensing new software. These services are available on-demand and delivered economically to any device anywhere in the world without compromising security or function. BYOD is about end users having the freedom to use personal tools to access information and communicate across a business or campus network. Smart home technology is integrated into every-day appliances allowing them to interconnect with other devices, making them more 'smart' or automated. Powerline networking is a trend for home networking that uses existing electrical wiring to connect devices to the network wherever there is an electrical outlet, saving the cost of installing data cables.

Question

An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees.
What three network characteristics are described in this scenario? (Choose three.)

Correct: Usernames and passwords relate to network security. Good quality video, to support video conferencing, relates to prioritizing the video traffic with quality of service (QoS). The fact that a connection to an ISP failed and was then restored but went unnoticed by employees relates to the fault tolerant design of the network.

Question

Which two traffic types use the Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP)? (Choose two.)

Correct: Voice and video are delay sensitive applications and are transported using the Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP). Web, file transfer, and peer-to-peer traffic are considered normal data traffic. ​

Question

Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.)

Correct: Traffic flow patterns should be gathered during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. The capture should also be performed on different network segments because some traffic will be local to a particular segment.

Question

The graphic displays a terminated RJ45 connector. The untwisted wires at the end of the PVC sheath are crimped by the connector.

Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

Correct: When a cable to an RJ-45 connector is terminated, it is important to ensure that the untwisted wires are not too long and that the flexible plastic sheath surrounding the wires is crimped down and not the bare wires. None of the colored wires should be visible from the bottom of the jack.

Question

A wired laser printer is attached to a home computer. That printer has been shared so that other computers on the home network can also use the printer. What networking model is in use?

Correct: Peer-to-peer (P2P) networks have two or more network devices that can share resources such as printers or files without having a dedicated server.

Question

When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the error threshold is reached?

Correct: When the store-and-forward switching method is used, the switch receives the complete frame before forwarding it on to the destination. In contrast, a cut-through switch forwards the frame once the destination Layer 2 address is read.

Question

A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

Correct: In order to use a URL such as http://www.cisco.com, the DNS protocol must be used in order to translate the URL into an IP address. Furthermore, the host device requesting this web page must have a default gateway configured in order to communicate with remote networks.

Question

What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?

Correct: In order to accommodate 40 devices, 6 host bits are needed. With 6 bits, 64 addresses are possible, but one address is for the subnet number and one address is for a broadcast. This leaves 62 addresses that can be assigned to network devices. The mask associated with leaving 6 host bits for addressing is 255.255.255.192.

Question

A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices:
Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses
Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses 
Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses 

What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?

Correct: If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the most hosts must be examined for number of hosts. Because this is 10 hosts, 4 host bits are needed. The /28 or 255.255.255.240 subnet mask would be appropriate to use for these networks. ​

Question

A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices:
IP phones – 22 addresses
PCs – 20 addresses needed
Printers – 2 addresses needed
Scanners – 2 addresses needed

The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?

Correct: If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the most hosts must be examined for the number of hosts, which in this case is 22 hosts. Thus, 5 host bits are needed. The /27 or 255.255.255.224 subnet mask would be appropriate to use for these networks.

Question

The exhibit shows the R1 router with three separate connections to three switches. Each switch has a PC. Under each PC from left to right are the following numbers and words: 10.18.10.0/26, 10.18.10.192/29, and 10 hosts.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two network addresses can be assigned to the network containing 10 hosts? Your answers should waste the fewest addresses, not reuse addresses that are already assigned, and stay within the 10.18.10.0/24 range of addresses. (Choose two.)

Correct: Addresses 10.18.10.0 through 10.18.10.63 are taken for the leftmost network. Addresses 192 through 199 are used by the center network. Because 4 host bits are needed to accommodate 10 hosts, a /28 mask is needed. 10.18.10.200/28 is not a valid network number. Two subnets that can be used are 10.18.10.208/28 and 10.18.10.224/28.

Question

Four PCs and a server are connected to a switch. The switch is connected the the LBMISS router. The LBMISS router is connected via a serial link to the "cloud" labeled ISP.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet?

Correct: Using a /29 prefix to subnet 192.168.10.0 results in subnets that increment by 8:
192.168.10.0 (1)
192.168.10.8 (2)
192.168.10.16 (3)
192.168.10.24 (4)
192.168.10.32 (5)

Question

What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communcations to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose three.)

Correct: The protocols used in network communications define the details of how a message is transmitted, including requirements for message delivery options, message timing, message encoding, formatting and encapsulation, and message size.

Question

Host A has IP address 172.168.10.99 /26 and a MAC address of AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA. A switch connects between host A and an Ethernet port on router R2. That port has an IP address of 172.168.10.65 /26 and a MAC address of BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB. R2 connects to router R1 via a serial port assigned 172.168.10.129 /30. The R1 serial interface has the IP address of 172.168.10.130 /30. The R1 Ethernet port connected to another switch has an IP address of 172.168.11.65 /26 and a MAC address of CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC. Host B connects to the same switch as R1. Host B has an IP address of 172.168.11.88 /26 and a MAC address of DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD.

Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?

Correct: When a host sends information to a distant network, the Layer 2 frame header will contain a source and destination MAC address. The source address will be the originating host device. The destination address will be the router interface that connects to the same network. In the case of host A sending information to host B, the source address is AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA and the destination address is the MAC address assigned to the R2 Ethernet interface, BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB.

Question

What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?

Correct: The TCP sliding window allows a destination device to inform a source to slow down the rate of transmission. To do this, the destination device reduces the value contained in the window field of the segment. It is acknowledgment numbers that are used to specify retransmission from a specific point forward. It is sequence numbers that are used to ensure segments arrive in order. Finally, it is a FIN control bit that is used to end a communication session.

Question

Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)

Correct: Layer 4 port numbers identify the application or service which will handle the data. The source port number is added by the sending device and will be the destination port number when the requested information is returned. Layer 4 segments are encapsulated within IP packets. UDP, not TCP, is used when low overhead is needed. A source IP address, not a TCP source port number, identifies the sending host on the network. Destination port numbers are specific ports that a server application or service monitors for requests.

Question

A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?

Correct: Traceroute (tracert) is a utility that generates a list of hops that were successfully reached along the path from source to destination.This list can provide important verification and troubleshooting information. The ipconfig utility is used to display the IP configuration settings on a Windows PC. The Netstat utility is used to identify which active TCP connections are open and running on a networked host. Nslookup is a utility that allows the user to manually query the name servers to resolve a given host name. This utility can also be used to troubleshoot name resolution issues and to verify the current status of the name servers.

Question

Three hosts (labeled A, B, and C) connect to a switch that connects to router R1. Router R1 connects through a serial connection to router R2. R2 connects to a switch that connects to host D.

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?

Correct: Since host A does not have the MAC address of the default gateway in its ARP table, host A sends an ARP broadcast. The ARP broadcast would be sent to every device on the local network. Hosts B, C, and router R1 would receive the broadcast. Router R1 would not forward the message.

Question

Host1 connects to Switch1 and then to Router1. Router1 connects to Router2 via a serial link. Router2 connects to Switch2 and Switch2 connects to a server. Router2 also connects to an ISP via a serial link.

Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

Correct: The TCP/IP model contains the application, transport, internet, and network access layers. A file transfer uses the FTP application layer protocol. The data would move from the application layer through all of the layers of the model and across the network to the file server.

Question

A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet?

Correct: When a router receives a traceroute packet, the value in the TTL field is decremented by 1. When the value in the field reaches zero, the receiving router will not forward the packet, and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded message back to the source.

Question

What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?

Correct: IMAP and POP are protocols that are used to retrieve email messages. The advantage of using IMAP instead of POP is that when the user connects to an IMAP-capable server, copies of the messages are downloaded to the client application. IMAP then stores the email messages on the server until the user manually deletes those messages.

Question

The graphic displays the following: C:\Windows\system32> tracert 192.168.100.1 Tracing route to 192.168.100.1 over a maximum of 30 hops 1   1 ms   <1 ms   <1 ms    10.10.10.10 2   2 ms    2 ms    1 ms    192.168.1.22 3   2 ms    2 ms    1 ms    192.168.1.62 4   2 ms    2 ms    1 ms    172.16.1.1 Trace complete.

Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)

Correct: The output displays a successful Layer 3 connection between a host computer and a host at 19.168.100.1. It can be determined that 4 hops exist between them and the average transmission time is 1 milliseconds. Layer 3 connectivity does not necessarily mean that an application can run between the hosts.

Question

What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)

Correct: The Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) process is a contention-based media access control mechanism used on shared media access networks, such as Ethernet. When a device needs to transmit data, it listens and waits until the media is available (quiet), then it will send data. If two devices transmit at the same time, a collision will occur. Both devices will detect the collision on the network. When a device detects a collision, it will stop the data transmission process, wait for a random amount of time, then try again.

Question

Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

Correct: The application layer of the TCP/IP model maps to the top three layers of the OSI model, which are the application, presentation, and session layers.

Question

Users report that the network access is slow. After questioning the employees, the network administrator learned that one employee downloaded a third-party scanning program for the printer. What type of malware might be introduced that causes slow performance of the network?

Correct: A cybersecurity specialist needs to be familiar with the characteristics of the different types of malware and attacks that threaten an organization.

Question

What are the two most effective ways to defend against malware? (Choose two.)

Correct: A cybersecurity specialist must be aware of the technologies and measures that are used as countermeasures to protect the organization from threats and vulnerabilities.

Question

The graphic shows a network topology that consists of three routers, R1, R2, and R3, that are connected to one another by serial links. The R1 G0/0 and G0/1 interfaces are attached to one LAN switch each. Each LAN switch has three hosts attached to it. One of the hosts that is attached to the G0/0 interface of R1 is labeled as H1. The R1 S0/0/0 interface is attached to R2. The R2 S0/0/1 interface is attached to a cloud that is labelled ISP. The R2 S0/1/0 interface is attached to the S0/0/0 interface of R3. The G0/0 interface of R3 is attached to a LAN switch. The LAN switch has three hosts attached to it.

Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device interface should be used as the default gateway setting of host H1?

Correct: The default gateway for host H1 is the router interface that is attached to the LAN that H1 is a member of. In this case, that is the G0/0 interface of R1. H1 should be configured with the IP address of that interface in its addressing settings. R1 will provide routing services to packets from H1 that need to be forwarded to remote networks.

Question

Which wireless technology has low-power and data rate requirements making it popular in home automation applications?

Correct: ZigBee is an IEEE 802.15.4 wireless standard designed for creating personal-area networks. Low energy, power, and data rate requirements make Zigbee a popular protocol for connecting home automation devices.

Question

Which layer of the TCP/IP model provides a route to forward messages through an internetwork?

Correct: The OSI model network layer corresponds directly to the internet layer of the TCP/IP model and is used to describe protocols that address and route messages through an internetwork.

Question

Which type of server relies on record types such as A, NS, AAAA, and MX in order to provide services?

Correct: A DNS server stores records that are used to resolve IP addresses to host names. Some DNS record types include the following:

Question

There are 3 routers. A line from the first router points to a text box that states 30 hosts. The first router is connected to the second router with a serial link. The second router is connected to the third router with a serial link. A line from the third router points to a text box that states 14 hosts.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been given the network address of 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 to subnet across the four networks shown. How many total host addresses are unused across all four subnets?

Correct: The network IP address 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 provides 62 usable IP addresses for each subnet. Subnet A needs 30 host addresses. There are 32 addresses wasted. Subnet B uses 2 of the 62 available IP addresses, because it is a serial link. Consequently, it wastes 60 addresses. Likewise, subnet C wastes 60 addresses. Subnet D needs 14 addresses, so it wastes 48 addresses. The total wasted addresses are 32+60+60+48=200 addresses.

Question

What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?

Correct: The /64 represents the network and subnet IPv6 fields. The fourth field of hexadecimal digits is referred to as the subnet ID. The subnet ID for this address is 2001:DA48:FC5:A4::0/64.​​

Question

A technician with a PC is using multiple applications while connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to keep track of the data flow between multiple application sessions and have each application receive the correct packet flows?

Correct: The source port number of an application is randomly generated and used to individually keep track of each session connecting out to the Internet. Each application will use a unique source port number to provide simultaneous communication from multiple applications through the Internet.

Question

What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64 process?

Correct: To derive the EUI-64 interface ID by using the MAC address 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8, three steps are taken.

  1. Change the seventh bit of the MAC address from a binary 0 to a binary 1 which changes the hex C, into a hex E.
  2. Insert hex digits FFFE into the middle of the address.
  3. Rewrite the address in IPv6 format.
The three steps, when complete, give the interface ID of 1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8.

Question

What is a function of the data link layer?

Correct: The data link layer of the OSI model is responsible for the following:

Question

Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose two.)

Correct: The application layer is the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack. Application layer protocols include HTTP, DNS, HTML, TFTP, POP, IMAP, FTP, and SMTP.

Question

A user is complaining that an external web page is taking longer than normal to load.The web page does eventually load on the user machine. Which tool should the technician use with administrator privileges in order to locate where the issue is in the network?

Correct: The Command Prompt command tracert will map the path from the PC to the web server and measure transit delays of packets across the network.

Question

The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?

Correct: A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices to allow them to communicate beyond just their local network.In a switch this is achieved using the command ip default-gateway <ip address>.

Question

What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?

Correct: The transport input ssh command when entered on the switch vty (virtual terminal lines) will encrypt all inbound controlled telnet connections.

Question

What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)

Correct: Proper UTP cabling should conform to the standards established for LAN installations. Some of the standard elements defined are as follows:

Question

What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)

Correct: Proper UTP cabling should conform to the standards established for LAN installations. Some of the standard elements defined are as follows:

Question

Which frame field is created by a source node and used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal has not been altered by interference, distortion, or signal loss?

Correct: In the Ethernet network, a transmitting node creates a logical summary of the contents of the frame, known as the cyclic redundancy check (CRC) value. This value is placed in the frame check sequence (FCS) field to represent the contents of the frame. In the Ethernet frame trailer, the FCS provides a method for the receiving node to determine whether the frame experienced transmission errors.

Question

What are two primary responsibilities of the Ethernet MAC sublayer? (Choose two.)

Correct: The Media Access Control (MAC) sublayer of the data link layer is responsible for data encapsulation and media access control. It provides data link layer addressing and it is integrated with various physical layer technologies.

Question

Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

Correct: Correct

Question

Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

Correct: Correct

Question

Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

Correct: Correct

Question

Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

Correct: Correct

Question

Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

Correct: Correct

Question

Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

Correct: Correct

Question

Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

Correct: Correct

Question

Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

Correct: Correct

Question

Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

Correct: Correct

Question

Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

Correct: Correct

Question

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 4 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

Correct: The subnet mask is used to determine the network address where a device belongs. It identifies the network and host portions of the IPv4 address. The host portion determines how many devices are supported on a given network.

Question

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 61 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

Correct: The subnet mask is used to determine the network address where a device belongs. It identifies the network and host portions of the IPv4 address. The host portion determines how many devices are supported on a given network.

Question

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 200 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

Correct: The subnet mask is used to determine the network address where a device belongs. It identifies the network and host portions of the IPv4 address. The host portion determines how many devices are supported on a given network.

Question

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 25 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

Correct: The subnet mask is used to determine the network address where a device belongs. It identifies the network and host portions of the IPv4 address. The host portion determines how many devices are supported on a given network.

Question

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 200 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

Correct: The subnet mask is used to determine the network address where a device belongs. It identifies the network and host portions of the IPv4 address. The host portion determines how many devices are supported on a given network.

Question

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 10 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

Correct: The subnet mask is used to determine the network address where a device belongs. It identifies the network and host portions of the IPv4 address. The host portion determines how many devices are supported on a given network.

Question

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 90 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

Correct: The subnet mask is used to determine the network address where a device belongs. It identifies the network and host portions of the IPv4 address. The host portion determines how many devices are supported on a given network.

Question

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 4 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

Correct: The subnet mask is used to determine the network address where a device belongs. It identifies the network and host portions of the IPv4 address. The host portion determines how many devices are supported on a given network.

Question

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 61 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

Correct: The subnet mask is used to determine the network address where a device belongs. It identifies the network and host portions of the IPv4 address. The host portion determines how many devices are supported on a given network.

Question

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 4 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

Correct: The subnet mask is used to determine the network address where a device belongs. It identifies the network and host portions of the IPv4 address. The host portion determines how many devices are supported on a given network.

Question

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 53. What service is the client requesting?

Correct: Correct

Question

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 143. What service is the client requesting?

Correct: Correct

Question

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 67. What service is the client requesting?

Correct: Correct

Question

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 69. What service is the client requesting?

Correct: Correct

Question

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 21. What service is the client requesting?

Correct: Correct

Question

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 69. What service is the client requesting?

Correct: Correct

Question

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 21. What service is the client requesting?

Correct: Correct

Question

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 80. What service is the client requesting?

Correct: Correct

Question

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 22. What service is the client requesting?

Correct: Correct

Question

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 110. What service is the client requesting?

Correct: Correct

Question

What service is provided by POP3?

Correct: Correct

Question

What service is provided by Internet Messenger?

Correct: Correct

Question

What service is provided by SMTP?

Correct: Correct

Question

What service is provided by HTTPS?

Correct: Correct

Question

What service is provided by DHCP?

Correct: Correct

Question

What service is provided by HTTP?

Correct: Correct

Question

What service is provided by BOOTP?

Correct: Correct

Question

What service is provided by HTTP?

Correct: Correct

Question

What service is provided by FTP?

Correct: Correct

Question

What service is provided by DNS?

Correct: Correct

Question

What characteristic describes a virus?

Correct: Correct

Question

What characteristic describes a Trojan horse?

Correct: Correct

Question

What characteristic describes spyware?

Correct: Correct

Question

What characteristic describes adware?

Correct: Correct

Question

What characteristic describes a DoS attack?

Correct: Correct

Question

What characteristic describes identity theft?

Correct: Correct

Question

What characteristic describes a VPN?

Correct: Correct

Question

What characteristic describes an IPS?

Correct: Correct

Question

What characteristic describes antivirus software?

Correct: Correct

Question

What characteristic describes antispyware?

Correct: Correct

Question

What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?

Correct: Data is transmitted on copper cables as electrical pulses. A detector in the network interface of a destination device must receive a signal that can be successfully decoded to match the signal sent. However, the farther the signal travels, the more it deteriorates. This is referred to as signal attenuation.

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